The MDCAT Free Mock Test by PLS Academy is specially designed for aspiring medical students to assess their preparation through a realistic, exam-style practice experience. It provides students with an opportunity to test their knowledge, identify weak areas, and improve their overall MDCAT preparation — completely free of cost.
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Created by PLS Academy
MDCAT Free Mock Test
Entry Test: MDCAT
Topic: MDCAT Free Mock Test
Quiz Contains: 180 MCQs
Biology = 81
Physics = 36
Chemistry = 45
English = 09
Logical Reasoning = 09
Time Duration: 3 hours
1 / 180
Symbol series: @, @, #, @, @, #, ?
@, @, and # are the three symbols that repeat the pattern. This order should be followed by the missing symbol.
2 / 180
Choose the next group: AZ, BY, CX, ?
The initial letters are in the order A, B, C, and D. The second set of letters is Z, Y, X, and W in reverse order.
3 / 180
Letter series: B, D, G, K,?
Since P follows the pattern of increasing gaps between consecutive letters, it is the right response.
4 / 180
Statement I: Many trees in the city park were cut down.
Statement II: The park was flooded after the first rain.
Floods may result from soil erosion and decreased rainwater absorption brought on by tree removal.
5 / 180
Statement: Road rage incidents are rising.
Courses of Action:
I. Introduce anger management sessions for offenders.
II. Suspend licenses of drivers involved.
When anger management and license suspension are combined, the underlying behavior is addressed and immediate consequences are imposed.
6 / 180
If BOOK is coded as EQQN, what is CODE?
The right response is this choice. FQGH is the result of moving the CODE letters forward by 1.
7 / 180
Statement: There is a rise in youth unemployment.
Courses of Action:
I. Promote entrepreneurship among youth.
II. Abolish retirement age.
Encouraging entrepreneurship can directly address the problem of youth unemployment by empowering young people to work for themselves and creating job opportunities.
8 / 180
Statement: “The new library saw higher footfall than expected.”
Inference:
A greater interest in library services, which are frequently linked to reading, is suggested by the increased foot traffic.
9 / 180
What comes next in the pattern: A, E, I, M, ?
Option A: The right response is “Q.” In the alphabet, each letter in the sequence is four places ahead of the one before it.
10 / 180
A device based on photoelectric effect is called:
It is common to refer to a device that uses the photoelectric effect as a “photoelectric cell” or “photocell.” Devices known as photoelectric cells make use of a material’s ability to release electrons when exposed to light.
11 / 180
Which one of the following particles moving in the magnetic field cannot be deflected:
A particle must have a non-zero value for the following in order to be deflected:
B, q, and v
However, since q=0 for neutrons, F=0 as well, and it will not be deflected.
13 / 180
In S.I unit, the value of “µ₀” is:
(total current that the loop encloses) where the permeability of free space is a constant denoted by µ₀. Its value in SI units is 4πx10^-7 Wb A^-1m^-1.
14 / 180
EMF induced in a circuit according to Faraday’s law depends on the
The induced electromotive force (EMF) in a circuit is directly proportional to the rate at which magnetic flux changes through the circuit, according to Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction. EMF = -dΦ/dt is the mathematical expression for it, where Φ is the magnetic flux.
15 / 180
For an isothermal process heat added to an ideal system versus work performed by that system is represented graphically:
A straight line through the origin graphically depicts the heat added to an ideal system in relation to the work that the system performs in an isothermal process. This is so because, according to the first law of thermodynamics, the heat that is added to a system is equal to the work that the system does plus the change in the system’s internal energy. Heat added to the system is equal to the work done by the system in an isothermal process because the system’s internal energy remains constant.
16 / 180
Two charges placed in air repel each other by a force of 10-4 N. When oil is introduced between the charges, the force becomes 2.5×10-5 N. The dielectric constant of oil is:
This is the right choice. The force in air divided by the force in the medium (oil) is the dielectric constant, and it equals 4.
18 / 180
What will be the electric potential energy of a 7nC charge that is 2cm from a 20 nC charge?
This is the right choice. This answer is the result of calculating U = k * Q1 * Q2 / r with the provided values.
19 / 180
When an electron in an atom goes from a lower to higher orbit its:
This is the right choice. Kinetic energy decreases as the electron absorbs energy as it ascends to a higher orbit. However, because the electron is farther away from the nucleus, which needs more energy, the potential energy rises.
20 / 180
A bullet of mass 20 g is fired with velocity of 2000 ms-1 , the K.E of the bullet is:
Considering the information provided;
m=20 g = 0.02 kg , v= 2000 m/s2
K.E = 1/2 mv2
= 1/2 (0.02)(2000)2.
= 40,000 J
21 / 180
Coulumb’s law applicable for_____________
As long as the distributed charges can be roughly represented as point charges for the purposes of the computation, this option makes it clear that Coulomb’s law applies to both point and distributed charges. This is the most thorough and precise way the law is applied.
22 / 180
When a radioactive nucleus emits a beta particle, the proton neutron ratio:
The proton-neutron ratio rises when a beta particle is released by a radioactive nucleus because the atomic number drops by one while the mass number remains constant.
23 / 180
A satellite remains in an orbit around the earth due to the centripetal force provided by:
This is the right choice. The centripetal force needed for orbiting is provided by the Earth’s gravitational pull, which keeps satellites in orbit.
24 / 180
When a mass is rotating in a plane about a fixed point, its angular momentum is directed along:
The cross product of the position vector (r) and linear momentum (p) yields the vector quantity known as angular momentum (L):
L = r×p
According to the right-hand rule, the angular momentum of a particle traveling in a plane around a fixed point is directed along the axis perpendicular to the plane of rotation. This indicates that both the position vector and the linear momentum vector are perpendicular to the angular momentum vector.
This is the right choice.
25 / 180
The reverse saturation current in a PN Junction diode is only due to:
That is right. Minority carrier flow across a PN junction is the main cause of the reverse saturation current.
26 / 180
The work done by an ideal monoatomic gas along path LMNO is:
Area under the P-V curve equals work done.
W = LM x MN
W = (2P-P) x (2V – V)
W = P x V
W is equal to 1 PV.
27 / 180
In a right angled triangle, cosθ=
This is the right choice. The cosine of an angle θ in a right-angled triangle is equal to the base’s (the adjacent side’s) length divided by the hypotenuse.
28 / 180
The working principle of an A.C. motor is:
This is the right choice. An AC motor’s basic functioning is based on the magnetism principle. A shaft is encircled by a coil of wire and two stationary magnets in a basic AC motor. The wire coil turns into an electromagnet when an electric charge (AC) is applied to it. There is a magnetic field produced by this electromagnet.
29 / 180
A sound wave of frequency f and wavelength λ travels through the air. It may be assumed that its speed is independent of the frequency. Which graph correctly shows the variation of f with λ?
Applying the formula
V = Fλ
F = V/λ (V is constant)
F ∝ 1/λ
Since they are inversely related, the gradient will be curved downward.
30 / 180
Eddy current is produced when:
When a metal is subjected to a fluctuating magnetic field, eddy currents are created. When conductive materials are subjected to fluctuating magnetic fields, loops of electrical current are created.
31 / 180
The sum of two vectors equal in magnitude but opposite in direction is
The cancellation effect causes the sum of two vectors that are opposite in direction but equal in magnitude to be zero.
32 / 180
A student carries out an experiment and plots the V-I graph of three samples of nichrome wire with resistances R1, R2 and R3 respectively. Which of the following is true?
V = IR
This demonstrates that resistance and current have an inverse relationship. The least resistance is found in the line that is closest to the I axis, and vice versa.
33 / 180
Given that centi equals 10^-2,
10^-8 × 10^-2 m = 10^-10 m
This corresponds to one angstrom.
34 / 180
If a particle of mass m is moving with a speed v, then De-Broglie’s wavelength ‘ λ ’ associated with it will be:
Indeed. A particle with mass m traveling at speed v has a De-Broglie wavelength λ, which can be found using the formula λ = h / (m × v), where h is Planck’s constant.
35 / 180
When a step-up transformer delivers high voltage then the current will be:
The current will decrease when the voltage is increased by a step-up transformer, which has the opposite effect. In an ideal transformer, where the product of voltage and current stays constant (ignoring losses), this relationship adheres to the principle of power conservation. Consequently, in order to preserve power conservation (P = V x I), the current will decrease as the voltage increases.
36 / 180
The power needed to lift a mass of 5000g to height of 1 m in 2 second is?
Considering the information provided;
m= 5000g = 5 kg , g= 9.8 , h=1m , time= 2s
Power= Energy/ time = P.E/time = mgh/time = (5 x 9.8 x 1) / 2 = 24.5W
37 / 180
A metal sphere of radius r is dropped into a tank of water. As it sinks at speed v, it experiences a drag force F given by F.= krv, where k is a constant: What are the S.I base units of k?
Right! The units of k are expressed in terms of force per velocity per unit length, which is obtained by rearranging the drag force equation F = krv to solve for k.
38 / 180
Water flows through an 1 cm diameter pipe with a speed of 1m/s. What should be the diameter of nozzle if the water is to emerge at 4m/s
This diameter is the right one. According to the equation of continuity, the speed increases to 4 m/s when the diameter is reduced.
39 / 180
The wave which requires a medium for its propagation is known as:
A mechanical wave is one that needs a medium in order to propagate. Waves composed of matter vibrations are known as mechanical waves. They cannot move through a vacuum because they need a medium to spread.
41 / 180
If force and displacement of a particle in direction of force are doubled, work would be
W = F × d becomes W’ = (2F) × (2d) = 4W if both the force and displacement are doubled. As a result, the completed work is four times that of the original.
42 / 180
The unit of angular velocity in SI unit is:
The International System of Units (SI) uses radians per second (rad/s) as the unit of angular velocity (ω). The International System of Units (SI) uses radians per second (rad/s) as the unit of angular velocity (ω).
43 / 180
According to quantum theory, the energy of a photon is directly proportional to which property of light:
This is the right response. A photon’s energy is directly proportional to its frequency, as stated by the equation E=hv, where E is the photon’s energy, h is Planck’s constant, and ν is the light’s frequency. The photon’s energy rises in tandem with the frequency.
44 / 180
A projectile is thrown with a speed of 100 ms-1 in a direction 60o with the horizontal. The horizontal component of its velocity is:
This choice is accurate since trigonometry can be used to determine the velocity’s horizontal component.
45 / 180
(6i+4j-k) . (4i+2j-2k) = ?
Right! (6i+4j-k) and (4i+2j-2k) dot product equals 34.
46 / 180
The best reagent for the oxidation of alcohols is:
Strong oxidizing agents, like potassium dichromate (K2Cr2O7), are the most effective reagent for converting primary alcohols to carboxylic acids.
47 / 180
The general formula of monocarboxylic acid:
It is true that a monocarboxylic acid’s general formula is CnH2n+1COOH.
48 / 180
During SN1 , mechanism, nucleophile can attack on the halogen carbon from which orientation?
A back-side attack is not necessary because the nucleophile only targets the carbocation after the departing group has left. The nucleophile can attack from either side because the carbocation and its substituents are all in the same plane.
49 / 180
Five carbon compounds, pentane has number of isomers:
Five carbon atoms make up the alkane pentane. Three constitutional isomers exist for it.
50 / 180
PVC pipes and plastic toys are related to
Thermoplastic polymers are perfect for items like PVC pipes and plastic toys because they can be repeatedly melted and reshaped. They are employed in many different applications and are very adaptable.
51 / 180
How many alcohols are structural isomers with the formula: C5 H11 OH?
For the given compound, there are eight possible structural isomers.
52 / 180
Oils and fats belong to the class of
Fatty acid and glycerol esters make up oils and fats. Glycerol is a trihydroxy alcohol, and fatty acids are long-chain carboxylic acids. Triglycerides, the primary constituents of oils and fats, are created when fatty acids and glycerol react.
53 / 180
A fatty acid with no double bond and high melting point is:
Saturated fatty acids are defined as having a high melting point and no double bonds. Long-chain hydrocarbons with only one bond between carbon atoms are known as saturated fatty acids, and they are solid at room temperature. Stearic acid and palmitic acid are two types of saturated fatty acids.
54 / 180
The solubility product of a sparingly soluble salt AB at room temperature is 1.21 x 10-6 . Its molar solubility is
Ksp = [A+][B-] is the solubility product for the sparingly soluble salt AB, which dissociates according to AB <—> A+ + B-. If we let the molar solubility of AB be s, then at equilibrium, [A+] = s and [B-] = s, so Ksp = s2. Given Ksp = 1.21 x 10-6, the molar solubility is calculated as s = √1.21 x 10+6 ≈ 1.1 x 10-3 M. This demonstrates that a detectable molar solubility can be found in even the smallest solubility product.
55 / 180
Activator of phosphatase enzyme is:
It is true that phosphatase enzymes can be activated by magnesium ions (Mg2+). A class of enzymes known as phosphatases is responsible for catalyzing the elimination of phosphate groups from molecules. Mg2+ stabilizes the enzyme-substrate complex and facilitates effective catalysis, making it a cofactor for a variety of enzymes, including phosphatases.
56 / 180
In esterification, the OH group of carboxylic acid departs as?
Option D is the right response.The carboxylic acid’s hydroxyl group (OH) leaves during esterification as a water molecule (H2O). This process happens when an alcohol and a carboxylic acid react, producing an ester as a byproduct along with water. The esterification reaction’s general equation is as follows:
R-COOH + R’-OH → R-COOR’ + H2O
57 / 180
Identify the product X in the following reaction:
CH3 COOH + SOCl2 ⟶ X + SO2 + HCI
Acid chloride is created when the carboxylic acid and SOCl2 react.
The carboxylic acid’s hydroxyl group is changed into an intermediate during the reaction, improving its leaving group properties. Carboxylic acid can function as a nucleophile, and sulfur in thionyl chloride is a potent electrophile.
Thus, acid chloride is X in this reaction.
CH3COOH + SOCl2→ CH3COCl + SO2 + HCl
58 / 180
Which one of the following properties of IIA group elements increases down the group?
It is well known that electropositivity increases down groups. As a result, the nucleus and valence electrons are less attracted to one another, and valence electrons are more easily lost.
59 / 180
One of the following equilibria is not affected by the change in the volume of the flask:
Two moles of gas are reactants, and two moles of gas are products.The equilibrium is not affected by changes in volume (and consequently pressure) when there is no net change in the number of moles of gas.True
60 / 180
Since their molecular formulas are identical, ethanol and dimethyl ether are functional isomers. CH3CH2OH
61 / 180
Geometric isomerism is the type of:
Stereoisomerism includes geometric isomerism.The isomers differ in the spatial arrangement of atoms but share the same order of atom binding.
62 / 180
The type of isomerism arises due to shifting of proton from one atom to other in the same molecule is called:
Tautomerism is a kind of isomerism that occurs when a proton moves from one atom in a molecule to another.For instance, ethanol and acetaldehyde
63 / 180
75% of a first order reaction was completed in 32 min. When was 50% of the reaction completed?
That is right. The logarithm of the concentration ratio determines how long it takes for a given percentage of a first-order reaction to finish. Consequently, half of the time required for 75% completion is required for 50% completion, or half of 100%.
65 / 180
With which of the following Grignard reagent reacts to form alkanes?
Gignard reagents are extremely reactive organometallic compounds denoted by the symbol RMgX. They go through a process called protonation and subsequent removal of magnesium halide when they react with different proton sources, such as water (H2O), alcohols (ROH), or amines (RNH2). Alkanes are the result of this reaction.
66 / 180
Alkynes show _________ reactions.
Correct! Alkynes can go through both electrophilic and nucleophilic addition reactions, depending on the reaction conditions and the kind of reagent used. Because of their triple bond, alkynes react with both electrophiles and nucleophiles to produce a range of products.
67 / 180
For the 1st order decomposition reacton 2N2 O5(g) → 2N2 O4(g) + O2(g) the half-life is given as
The half-life of a first-order reaction can be calculated using the following formula: t1/2 = ln(2)/k = 0.693/k.
68 / 180
Which of the following pairs shows diagonal relationship?
There is a diagonal relationship between Li and Mg. Their reactivity with water and the production of oxides and carbonates are among their similar characteristics.
69 / 180
The reaction of benzene with bromine in the presence of FeBr3 follows the mechanism of __________ reaction:
Right! The electrophile Br+, which is created by FeBr3, replaces a hydrogen atom in the benzene ring to create bromobenzene.
70 / 180
For a chemical reaction A → B, the rate of reaction doubles when the concentration of A is increased four times. The order of reaction for A is
Right! When the concentration is quadrupled, the rate doubles, indicating a half-order reaction: 41/2 = 2.
71 / 180
The angle between unhybridize p-orbital and three sp2 hybrid orbitals of each carbon atom in ethene is:
This is not right. A 90-degree angle is indicated by the unhybridized p-orbital in ethene being perpendicular to the sp2 hybrid orbitals.
72 / 180
Skeletal formula of an organic compound iv given below. It is a hydrocarbon. IUPAC name of the compound is:
accurate since it accurately depicts every position of the functional group, such as the methyl branches and the double bond. Two methyl branches on the third and fourth carbons make up 3,4-Dimethyl. Three & ene indicates that the double bond is on the third carbon, and -3-hexene = Hex indicates that the chain has six carbons.
73 / 180
The highest boiling point among the following is for:
London dispersion forces and dipole-dipole interactions are both present in the polar molecule chloroform. Because of these stronger intermolecular forces, it has a higher boiling point than the other options on the list.
74 / 180
The elements having partially filled d and f orbitals are called as______?
Transition metals and inner transition metals, respectively, are elements with partially filled d and f orbitals.
Elements in the periodic table’s d-block are known as transition metals. They are distinguished by their variable oxidation states, capacity to form complexes, and partially filled d orbitals.
Elements in the periodic table’s f-block are known as inner transition metals. They are distinguished by their high atomic numbers, radioactivity, and partially filled f orbitals.
75 / 180
All of these can act as donor except:
GeCl4 cannot donate electrons because it lacks lone pairs of electrons.
76 / 180
Considering the elements B, C, N, F and Si, the correct order of their non-metallic character is:
Based on increasing non-metallic character, electronegativity, and periodic table position, this is the proper order.
77 / 180
Which of the following is not a neutral ligand?
Nitro (NO2−) is a polyatomic ion with a charge of -1; it is not a neutral ligand.
78 / 180
At the start of chemical reaction, the instantaneous rate is __________ than average rate.
The higher reactant concentration at the beginning of a chemical reaction causes the instantaneous rate to be higher than the average rate, initially resulting in a faster reaction.
79 / 180
The oxidation number of Mn in [MnO4 ]-2
Each oxygen atom in the ion [MnO₄]²⁻ has an oxidation number of –2. Let x be manganese’s oxidation number. The charge of the ion is equal to the sum of the oxidation numbers: x + 4(–2) = –2. After solving, x – 8 = –2, meaning that x = +6. Consequently, Mn’s oxidation number in [MnO₄]²⁻ is +6.
80 / 180
Which bond deviates maximum from expected bond length:
Because of fluorine’s high electronegativity, the Si-F bond deviates greatly from the expected bond length, resulting in a significant shortening of the bond in SiF4 when compared to the sum of the covalent radii.
81 / 180
Which one of the following pairs is chemically dissimilar?
Zn (zinc) is a transition metal, whereas Ca (calcium) belongs to Group 2 (alkaline earth metals). They are not in the same group and have distinct chemical characteristics.
82 / 180
The activation energy for a simple chemical reaction A → B is Ea in forward direction. The activation energy for reverse reaction
The reverse reaction’s activation energy may be higher or lower than Ea.
The bare minimum of energy required for the reactants to react is known as the activation energy. The bare minimum of energy required for the products to react is known as the activation energy for the reverse reaction. It will be greater than Ea in an exothermic reaction and less than Ea in an endothermic reaction.
83 / 180
Vapour pressure of water is 4.579 torr at 0°C and 9.209 torr at 10°C, so the increase in vapour pressure from 0°C to 10°C is 4.630 torr. What will be the change in vapour pressure from 90°C to 100°C?
This is accurate since the exponential nature of vapor pressure increase means that it rises more with higher temperatures.
84 / 180
The slope of concentration time graph gives value of
The rate of reaction, or the change in a reactant or product’s concentration per unit of time, is shown by the slope of a concentration-time graph.
85 / 180
In crystal structure of NaCl, the arrangement of Cl– ions is:
Each atom in the face-centered cubic (fcc) structure is surrounded by twelve other atoms. Cl-ions create a fcc lattice in NaCl, while Na+ ions occupy the octahedral voids. Because of this configuration, a stable ionic lattice is formed, with six Na+ ions symmetrically encircling each Cl-.
86 / 180
The geometry of H2 O is similar to that of:
One lone pair and two bonding pairs on the tin atom give SnCl2 a V-shaped bent geometry, which is comparable to the bent geometry of H2O, which likewise has two lone pairs and two bonding pairs on the oxygen atom. Therefore, this choice is appropriate.
87 / 180
A molecule that has polar bonds but is overall non – polar:
Because of their symmetrical shapes, which eliminate the dipole moments brought on by the polar covalent bonds, all of the molecules are non-polar.
88 / 180
Hydrogen bonding is maximum in:
Because water is polar and has two lone pairs of electrons on the oxygen atom, it shows a lot of hydrogen bonding. Multiple hydrogen bonds with other water molecules are made possible as a result.
89 / 180
Vapour pressure at 100°C is:
Since the vapor pressure of water at 100°C is equal to the standard atmospheric pressure, which is 760 mmHg or 1 atm, this is the right value.
90 / 180
Which pair has the same geometry:
Two bonding pairs and one lone pair on the central atom define the bent geometry of SnCl2 and SO2, which both have bond angles less than 120°.
91 / 180
Both T and B cells get maturation by the involvement of gene called:
Because ADA (adenosine deaminase) is necessary for T and B cell maturation, those who lack it are at risk for potentially fatal infections.
92 / 180
The change in frequency of alleles at a locus that occurs by chance is which of the following?
Changes in allele frequencies brought about by chance events are known as genetic drift, and they are particularly important in small populations.
93 / 180
If two species have similar proteins and genes it means:
That is right. The presence of homologous traits and evolutionary lineage from a common ancestor is indicated by similarities in genes and proteins between species.
94 / 180
Response of body against the transplanted organ is:
T-cells and other immune cells are activated in cell-mediated immunity to target cells that are thought to be alien, like those in a transplanted organ.
95 / 180
The right response is “neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils.” Granulocytes include neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils. They are distinguished by having granules in their cytoplasm and are crucial for the immune response. Basophils are involved in inflammatory responses, eosinophils are involved in allergic reactions and parasite defense, and neutrophils are involved in the phagocytosis of bacteria.
96 / 180
The vein which is formed by many veins collecting deoxygenated blood with absorbed food from different parts of alimentary canal, is called:
Blood from the entire ailmentary canal is collected by the hepatic portal vein and transported to the inferior vena cava.
97 / 180
Renal veins pour blood into:
The inferior vena cava, which returns blood from the lower body to the heart, receives the deoxygenated blood from the renal veins after they drain the kidneys.
98 / 180
Femoral veins pour deoxygenated blood into:
The iliac veins, which carry blood to the inferior vena cava and eventually the heart, are formed when the femoral veins unite.
99 / 180
A large vein that collects deoxygenated blood from the upper parts of the body:
A sizable vein called the superior vena cava returns deoxygenated blood to the heart from the upper body, including the arms, chest, neck, and head.
100 / 180
Which one is different from others?
The pancreas and salivary glands both produce the enzyme amylase. By converting starch to sugars, it facilitates digestion.
101 / 180
Cardiac sphincter is present at the junction of stomach and:
The cardiac sphincter, sometimes referred to as the lower esophageal sphincter, regulates the flow of food into the stomach and is situated where the esophagus and stomach meet.
102 / 180
Type of salivary glands found in human oral cavity:
In the human oral cavity, there are three main pairs of salivary glands. These are the main salivary glands:
The parotid glands are situated close to the ears.
The submandibular glands are situated beneath the jaw.
The sublingual glands are situated beneath the tongue.
103 / 180
For treatment of SCIDS, the bone marrow stem cells are infected with a retrovirus that carries:
Retroviruses use their DNA (recombinant DNA) to act as a vector and carrier of a normal gene for the synthesis of the ADA enzyme.
104 / 180
To cure Parkinson’s disease, dopamine producing cells, could be grafted directly into the brain as a:
A lack of the brain neurotransmitter dopamine results in Parkinson’s disease. It is cured once its deficiency is corrected.
105 / 180
Which type of white blood cells are concerned with the release of histamine and the natural anticoagulant heparin?
Histamine release and the natural anticoagulant heparin are of concern to basophils. One kind of white blood cell that plays a role in the immune system is the basophil. They only make up around 0.1% of the total number of white blood cells, making them the least common type. One substance that contributes to allergic reactions is histamine. Mast cells and basophils produce it.
106 / 180
The example of artificially induced active immunity is:
Artificial active immunity is provided by vaccination. Active immunity can be developed through vaccinations. Without actually causing the illness, they help the immune system identify and recall particular pathogens, like bacteria or viruses.
107 / 180
The pedigree of Queen Victoria’s family shows hemophilic sons in generation no:
Because the X-linked recessive gene was inherited from Queen Victoria through the female carriers in the family, hemophiliac sons are present in all of these generations (II, III, and IV).
108 / 180
The example of X – linked dominant trait is:
The condition known as hypophosphatemic rickets is X-linked dominant. Because females have two X chromosomes and are therefore more likely to inherit the dominant trait, it is more commonly expressed in them and affects phosphate metabolism.
109 / 180
Only when a plant has two recessive alleles (rr), which is homozygous recessive, does the wrinkled seed trait manifest.
110 / 180
Agglutination of blood leads to serious results because clumped blood cells can not:
Blood cells that clump or agglutinate make it difficult for them to flow through the body’s tiny capillaries, which can cause blockages and even damage to tissue.
111 / 180
If both contrasting alleles of a gene are fully expressed in a heterozygous condition their mutual relation will be called as:
When both alleles in a heterozygous condition are fully expressed and contribute equally to the phenotype, this is known as co-dominance. Co-dominance is the right response because of this reciprocal expression.
112 / 180
What is the correct sequence of sperm formation?
Spermatogonia, Spermatocyte, Spermatid, Spermatozoa
Spermatogonia, Spermatocyte, Spermatozoa, Spermatid
Spermatocyte, Spermatogonia, Spermatozoa, Spermatid
Spermatogonia, Spermatozoa, Spermatocyte, Spermatid
This is the proper order in which sperm are formed. The first germ cells to go through mitosis are called spermatogonia. They then develop into spermatocytes, spermatids, and finally spermatozoa.
113 / 180
Development of primary follicles is induced by:
The development of primary follicles in the ovaries is significantly influenced by FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone). Ovarian follicles, which house the developing eggs (oocytes), are stimulated to grow and mature.
114 / 180
Second meiotic division in oocyte is completed:
When a sperm fertilizes a secondary oocyte, it goes through the second meiotic division, creating an ovum. The second meiotic division is finished with this process.
115 / 180
In which week of pregnancy organogenesis starts:
Organogenesis begins in the third week of pregnancy and lasts until the eighth week. The fetus has all of its major organs and organ systems by the end of the eighth week. They are still quite tiny and undeveloped, though.
116 / 180
Regulation of____________is not a function of hypothalmus in human.
The hypothalamus is involved in emotional responses and has some effect on circadian rhythms (sleep-wake cycles) through its regulation of the suprachiasmatic nucleus, but these processes are not primarily linked to the hypothalamus. The pineal gland and other parts of the brain are involved in the more intricate process of regulating circadian rhythms. The limbic system and other brain regions are largely responsible for controlling emotions; the hypothalamus is involved but not the main regulator.Although a person’s genes determine their rhythms, their surroundings can have an impact. Therefore, a combination of the effects of timed environmental events and rhythmic internal processes leads to timing of behavior.
117 / 180
Breathing and heart rate is controlled by which of these:
The medulla oblongata regulates blood pressure, heart rate, and breathing. The hindbrain contains it.
118 / 180
In which condition brain produced more impulses than normal:
The neurological condition known as epilepsy is typified by frequent and erratic seizures, which are short bursts of aberrant brain electrical activity. Depending on the region of the brain impacted and the intensity of the aberrant electrical discharges, these seizures can present in a variety of ways.
119 / 180
Once the myosin head has become attached to the actin filament:
That is right. The energy required for the myosin head to pivot, pull the actin filament, and resume the contraction cycle is provided by ATP hydrolysis.
120 / 180
Which of the following is not the part of the forebrain?
The forebrain does not include the reticular formation. It is a component of the brainstem, the brain’s lower region.
121 / 180
A motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it supplies is called:
One motor neuron and the muscle fibers it innervates make up a motor unit. The motor neuron extends its axon to innervate several muscle fibers within a particular muscle after emerging from the brainstem or spinal cord. When the motor neuron sends a signal, these muscle fibers—all of which are either slow-twitch or fast-twitch—contract together.
122 / 180
Which of the following statement about neuron is incorrect?
Once they reach maturity, neurons usually do not undergo mitosis, the process by which cells divide to form similar cells. Mature neurons typically lose their capacity to divide and reproduce, in contrast to many other cell types in the body.
123 / 180
These are the structures that respond when they are stimulated by an impulse coming through motor neuron:
Because glandular cells are effectors, they release hormones in response to signals from the autonomic nervous system.
124 / 180
Chemical gall stones are:
Bile, which contains cholesterol secreted by the liver, is stored in the gallbladder. Too much cholesterol in the bile can cause gallstones to form and precipitate, which will prevent the bile from being released. The most prevalent kind of gallstone is this one.
125 / 180
The acidic dietary contents of the stomach, on reaching small intestine are neutralized by ____ produced by .
The pancreas produces bicarbonate, which it then secretes into the small intestine to counteract the stomach’s acidic contents.
126 / 180
Haversian canals occur in the:
The humerus is a long bone that contains Haversian canals in its marrow cavity, which serve as passageways for lymph, blood, and nerve vessels.
127 / 180
Glomerulus is present inside the
The glomerulus is a capillary network found in the nephron’s Bowman’s capsule.
128 / 180
ADH increases ____ from the collecting duct.
Right! Increased water absorption back into the bloodstream results from ADH’s increase in the collecting duct’s permeability to water.
129 / 180
The greater the demand of conserving water, the greater would be the number of
Long loops of Henle that reach deep into the medulla enable juxtamedullary nephrons to produce a high osmotic gradient. They are vital when there is a strong need to conserve water because this is necessary for effectively reabsorbing water.
130 / 180
This is the right response. Haemodialysis is a procedure that effectively cleans the blood by filtering out waste, extra fluid, and toxins.
131 / 180
An animal when taken into hot area looses heat by sweating and when cold area increases muscular activity to produce more heat.” The animal in this thought is
Regardless of the outside environment, homeothermic animals control their body temperature internally and keep it within a specific range. They regulate their body temperature through processes like perspiration and heightened muscle contraction.
132 / 180
Semilunar valves are not present:
At the base of the aorta and pulmonary trunk, respectively, are semilunar valves, also referred to as aortic and pulmonary valves. During diastole, they stop blood from flowing backward into the ventricles. Contrarily, the veins have one-way valves running the length of them to stop blood from flowing backward, particularly in the limbs. The vessels without valves that provide oxygen and nutrients to the heart muscle are called coronary arteries.
133 / 180
Which of the following immunoglobulins does constitute the largest percentage in human milk?
Since IgA immunoglobulins are the second most prevalent class of immunoglobulins and are primarily present in gastrointestinal secretions, mucus, colostrum, sweat, tears, and saliva, this choice is accurate.
134 / 180
Antibodies are produced by :
B cells and T cells are examples of lymphocytes, a particular subset of white blood cells. As a vital component of the immune response, B cells are in charge of producing antibodies.
135 / 180
Cell surfaces are where antigens are most frequently found. They may be proteins, glycoproteins, or other molecules that the immune system recognizes and that immune cells like T-cells and B-cells use to trigger an immune response when the body comes into contact with pathogens or foreign substances.
136 / 180
Select the phase/s of breathing:
During inhalation, the diaphragm and respiratory muscles contract to create negative pressure, which allows air to enter the lungs. The process of drawing air out of the lungs by relaxing the respiratory muscles is called exhalation. Another name for inhalation is inspiration.
137 / 180
The enzyme essential for the transport of CO2 as bicarbonate in the blood is:
The proper enzyme that converts carbon dioxide (CO2) to bicarbonate (HCO3-) in the blood is carbonic anhydrase. This procedure is necessary for the bloodstream to carry CO2, which supports the body’s acid-base equilibrium.
138 / 180
A structure that does not contain cartilage:
This is correct. None of the terminal structures of the respiratory tract (alveolar ducts, sacs, or alveoli) have cartilage. Cartilage is limited to the conducting portion of the respiratory system (trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles to some extent), while the respiratory portion (alveolar ducts, sacs, alveoli) lacks it.
139 / 180
Action of which enzyme gives amino acids:
Amino acids are produced by proteases. A class of enzymes known as proteases disassembles proteins into smaller units, such as amino acids. All living cells contain proteases, which are involved in many functions such as cell signaling, immunity, and digestion.The pancreas produces a mixture of proteolytic enzymes called erepsin, which is located in the small intestine. It is in charge of converting peptides into amino acids during the last phases of protein digestion.
140 / 180
Which of the following makes direct use of oxygen?
The inner mitochondrial membrane is home to the electron transport chain, which uses oxygen directly. As the last electron acceptor, oxygen is essential for creating water and enabling the synthesis of ATP.
141 / 180
Which one of the following is the universal hydrogen acceptor?
The universal hydrogen acceptor, NAD, is essential for redox processes. In order to participate in energy transfer during processes like glycolysis and the electron transport chain, it takes up electrons and a proton to create NADH.
142 / 180
In the Krebs cycle, the hydrogen atoms removed at the succinate level are accepted by:
In the Krebs cycle, succinate is oxidized to fumarate, and FAD takes up the protons and electrons to create FADH2. For additional energy production, FADH2 transports these high-energy electrons to the electron transport chain.
143 / 180
Penicillin, an antibiotic inhibits bacterial growth. It is categorized as:
Penicillin is not a straightforward inhibitor of competition. Penicillin binds to the bacterial enzyme transpeptidase irreversibly, in contrast to other competitive inhibitors that reversibly compete with the substrate for the enzyme’s active site. Because of this irreversible inactivation, which prevents the synthesis of cell walls, penicillin is an irreversible inhibitor rather than a traditional competitive one.
144 / 180
The pay-off phase of glycolysis conserves:
The second stage of glycolysis, known as the pay-off phase, is when ATP and NADH are generated. Two ATP molecules are used in the energy-demanding steps of glycolysis, and during the pay-off phase, four ATP molecules and two NADH molecules are produced. As a result, each glucose molecule gains two ATP molecules.
145 / 180
Unlike eukaryotes, prokaryotes have no membrane-bound organelles, How then are prokaryotes able to generate energy?
This is the right choice. Similar to eukaryotic mitochondria, prokaryotes produce energy by chemiosmosis, which creates proton gradients across their plasma membranes.
146 / 180
The chromosomes in which centromere is situated close to one end are:
The centromere of an acrocentric chromosome is situated very near one end, making one arm noticeably shorter than the other. This is exactly in line with the description of the question.
147 / 180
The cisternae breaks up into vesicles from _______ , ______ of Golgi complex.
The maturing face is another name for the trans face (concave surface) of the golgi apparatus, where the cisternae split apart to create new vesicles.
148 / 180
Phosphatidylserine residues in the plasma membrane are located at?
This is the right choice. A negatively charged phospholipid called phosphatidylserine is mostly located on the inner leaflet of the plasma membrane, which is facing the cytoplasm.
149 / 180
According to _______ model, the active site of enzyme is modified as the substrate interacts with enzyme.
The induced fit model states that an enzyme’s active site is flexible. The enzyme’s active site is altered in response to the substrate’s binding to help with the binding process.
150 / 180
The nuclei of both plant and animal cells contain one or more dense bodies known as nucleoli. Which one of the following correct describes the function of nucleoli?
That is right. The nucleolus is in charge of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) synthesis and ribosomal subunit assembly, both of which are necessary for the formation of ribosomes. The cytoplasm is where protein synthesis takes place, and ribosomes are essential for this process.
151 / 180
An animal has 80 chromosomes in its gametes, how many chromosomes will be seen in the animal’s muscle cells?
That is right. Muscle cells and other somatic cells have twice as many chromosomes as gametes; therefore, a gamete with 80 chromosomes has 160 chromosomes.
152 / 180
In which one of the following enzymes is Copper necessarily associated as an activator?
This enzyme is known to be dependent on copper ions, which are necessary for its enzymatic activity, and is necessary for the biosynthesis of melanin. Because copper is an activator, this enzyme is the best option.
153 / 180
Plasma membrane by volume is mainly made up of:
The primary structural elements of the plasma membrane are phospholipids, which combine to form a bilayer that makes up the majority of the membrane’s volume and gives it its semi-permeable characteristics.
154 / 180
The type of inhibition in which the inhibitor has no structural similarity to the substrate and combines with the enzyme at other than the active site is called:
When an inhibitor attaches itself to another component of an enzyme, denatures the active site, and stops the reaction, this is known as non-competitive inhibition. This is a common way for the body to keep an eye on and control enzyme-controlled reactions.
155 / 180
Waxes are made up of alcohols and long-chain fatty acids; they do not have the isoprene units that terpenoids do.
156 / 180
The enantiomer of D-glucose is:
Since L-glucose is the non-superimposable mirror image of D-glucose, it is the correct enantiomer.
157 / 180
Chitin differs structurally from other kinds of polysaccharides because it contains nitrogen.
158 / 180
In carbohydrates, hydrogen and oxygen are mostly found in the ratio of:
According to their general formula (CH2O)n, which pairs each carbon atom with two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom, this is the proper hydrogen to oxygen ratio in carbohydrates.
159 / 180
Of the following terms, the one that includes all others is:
All chemical reactions in living things, including anabolic and catabolic ones, are included in metabolism. It is the most inclusive term because it encompasses both respiration and oxidation.
160 / 180
Which of the following carbohydrate does not give colour with Iodine?
There is no color change because cellulose’s linear structure prevents it from forming a helical complex with iodine.
161 / 180
An average loss of blood during birth is about how many cm3 ?
This is within the typical range of blood loss that occurs during childbirth. Some women may experience blood loss at this level, though the exact amount can vary.
162 / 180
During menstruation, which of the following sheds off?
During menstruation, the endometrium sheds. The uterine lining is called the endometrium. In order to prepare for pregnancy, it thickens and becomes vascularized during the menstrual cycle’s follicular phase. In the absence of pregnancy, the endometrium decomposes and is expelled during the menstrual cycle.
163 / 180
Genes of interest can be selected from a genomic library by using:
Since a DNA probe is a single-stranded DNA fragment that contains a nucleotide sequence unique to the gene or chromosomal region of interest in a genomic library, this choice is accurate.
164 / 180
75% osmotic pressure of blood is maintained by:
The pressure that a solution applies to a semi-permeable membrane is known as osmotic pressure, and it is influenced by the solute concentration in the solution. The presence of plasma proteins, especially albumin, in blood is primarily responsible for maintaining osmotic pressure. Thus, albumin is the right response to the query. It makes up roughly 75% of the blood’s overall osmotic pressure.
165 / 180
If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in a person, to which of the following would you look for confirmatory evidence?
Serum globulins are globulins that are found in blood serum and contain the majority of the blood’s antibodies. A laboratory test called serum globulin electrophoresis looks at particular blood proteins known as globulins. Alpha, beta, and gamma globulins are the three general categories of globulins. In the lab, electrophoresis and densitometry can be used to separate and quantify these.
166 / 180
A surfactant is a secretory product that is composed of:
The main components of pulmonary surfactant are proteins and lipids. Proteins aid in spreading and stabilizing the surfactant layer, while lipids—primarily phospholipids—reduce alveolar surface tension.
167 / 180
Damage to thymus in a child may lead to:
T-lymphocyte development and maturation, which are essential for cell-mediated immunity, are mainly impacted by thymus damage. This results in a substantial loss of cell-mediated immunity since a child with thymus damage will be less able to mount immune responses against diseased or aberrant cells.
168 / 180
In F2 of dihybrid cross Mendel obtained probabilty of parental types:
For the F2 generation’s parental types, this is the accurate probability. 10/16, or 62.5%, is made up of 1/16 wrinkled green and 9/16 round yellow.
169 / 180
Child death may occur in the marriage of:
If a Rh+ man marries a Rh– woman, the child may inherit the Rh+ factor, increasing the risk of maternal-fetal Rh incompatibility. In later pregnancies, this may result in hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN), which may cause fetal death.
170 / 180
After leaving the spinal cord, the spinal nerve gets divided into nerve fibers, connecting to which of the following?
The spinal nerve splits into nerve fibers after exiting the spinal cord and attaches to effectors, also referred to as efferent fibers.
171 / 180
Which lobe is involved in short-term memory, speech, musical rhythm and some degree of smell recognition?
Short-term memory, speech, musical rhythm, and to a lesser extent, smell recognition are all functions of the temporal lobe.
172 / 180
Choose the correct option
When referring to a previous period of time, the phrase “there were” is appropriate because it indicates that there were several cases of diphtheria in the area at one time.
In this sentence, the idiomatic phrase “a number of”—which means “many” or “several”—is appropriately employed to denote a plural noun phrase.
173 / 180
He was born___ rich parents.
Since “born of” clearly conveys the intended meaning—that he is the child of wealthy parents—this is the right response.
174 / 180
It was my friend and ____ responsible for making all the arrangements for the successful completion of her studies.
Since “I” is the subject pronoun combined with the verb “was,” it matches the singular subject “It” and refers to “my friend and I” as a compound subject. Therefore, I who was is correct. In this instance, “I” is suitable for the subject and “was” agrees with the singular subject.
175 / 180
He was scared to lose me.
Correct Adjective Complement: An adjective complement describes the subject and comes after a linking verb. In this case, “scared” is an adjective complement since it expresses “he’s” emotional state quite clearly.
176 / 180
Change the voice of following sentence.
Will no one tell me what she does?
This preserves the negative and interrogative forms of the original question while appropriately changing it to the passive voice.
177 / 180
This is a true statement. Using “sitting” as a gerund to describe the permitted action (sitting late at the dinner table), “Allow sitting late” is grammatically correct.
178 / 180
In each question in the following, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the CORRECT one and fill the circle corresponding to that letter in the answer sheet.
It expresses the idea in a straightforward and understandable sentence structure. The sentence successfully communicates that as soon as one goal is accomplished, another one emerges, and the phrase “Just as soon as” suggests a sense of immediacy.
179 / 180
The leader said to the people, “Let us start with a new zeal”.
The leader’s suggestion is accurately reflected in this option. In indirect speech, “should” is a suitable modal verb to express the recommendation or suggestion in line with the original speech’s imperative nature.
180 / 180
Choose the answer that is most similar. Crammed
“Crammed” refers to being fully occupied or packed with objects or people, frequently in an awkward or crowded manner. “Thronged” is a synonym for this, suggesting a sizable group of people or objects.
Your score is
The average score is 14%
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